Why does this webauthor get the impression that "christians" presume that nibbling a little eucharistic wafer tidbit and sipping a smidgen of communion wine each mass clears their sinful slate until the next mass since imbibing at their previous mass?

What a hideous and even blasphemous MIS-conception of them to presume that! [Heb. 10:1-4,8,11]

Why are those few short verses of only one apostle (Paul) within only one chapter of only one book of only the New Testament [First Corinthians 11:23-30] - in contrast to the hundreds of other morality-imperative chapters and thousands of other morality-command verses of the New Testament (besides ALL those of the OLD Testament) - concentrated on as THE focal point, THE high point, THE culmination, and SO often, of catholic-denomination-type church services.....especially being that the immediate context before and after I Cor. 11:23-30 [i.e. I Cor. 11:20-22 & I Cor. 11:33-34, respectively] refers to church-picnic/supper-type gluttony and drunkeness and disorder?

Neither Christ Himself nor Paul always and only spoke literally. For example, Christ called Himself a (non-licensed) livestock herder in John 10:11,14 ("I am the good shepherd"), a piece of carpentry in John 10:9 ("I am the door"), a growth of vegetation in John 15:1 ("I am the true vine"), bakery goods in John 6:35,48 ("I am the bread of life"), and promised a multi-husband Samaritan woman (in John 4:14) "living" water (not semen, to be sure) causing her to "never thirst again."

In John 6:57 Jesus tells people that he who eats Him will live, and in John 6:55 tells people that His flesh is food and His blood is drink. Notice that the Biblical record does NOT then state that His disciples immediately got a carving knife and a syringe or lance and cannibalistically begin to chop Christ up and suck on his punctured arteries.....nor did they bring out the wafers and wine until a while afterward (at least a few Sabbaths later)?

NONE of the Old-Testament patriarchs (Adam, Enoch, Noah, Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Moses, Joshua, Samuel, David, Solomon, Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, etc.) ingested eucharist wafers with wine for communion. Did they go to Hades for not doing so? The Penitent Thief on a cross [Luke 23:43] never had eucharist wafers and wine before he died. He merely but vitally called Christ 'Lord' and thus made it that same day into Paradise but not Purgatory.

The Old-Covenant patriarchs probably did eat passover lamb - not to atone for their sins, but rather simply in obedience to a specified command of God. Instead of chomping into Christ's flesh-and-blood body, they roasted the lamb...and certainly NEVER EVER drank any lamb's blood!

Even the Apostle Paul, in I Corinthians 11:23-30, found it too abhorrent to write the words "cup of BLOOD", but instead merely limited his phraseology to the words "drink the cup" - especially in light of Acts 15:20 which orders converts to "abstain from.....blood." For teetotalers, Paul did not even use the word: "wine" in those verses.

So WHAT did Jesus imply when He told people to eat His flesh and drink His blood? WHAT was He trying to convey when He equated His Last-Supper bread and a fruit-of-the-vine cup with "His body" and "His blood." Was not He being figurative again...being that Leviticus 7:26 clearly and explicitly warns everyone to "eat no blood whatever," and Leviticus 17:10 states that if any man....eats any blood, I will set my face against that person who eats blood, and will cut him off from among his people." Was Jesus now obnoxiously and flagrantly flying in the face of that directive of the LORD, and obviously contradicting Himself? And WHAT did Paul imply when alluding to this body eating and blood drinking in I Cor. 11:23-30?

Certainly our eating wafers and drinking wine neither substitutes for Christ's ONE-time sacrificial atonement by Himself ALONE by lethally hanging on a cross...nor adds some of our own eucharistic eating and drinking sacrifice of ourselves or sacrificing-by-recrucifying the Lord of glory to self-atone or co-atone for our sins. Being hung to death on a cross is FAR DIFFERENT physical action than ingesting occasional altar wafers and a little altar wine now and then.

So what REALLY does it mean to mortally eat eucharist wafers and drink eucharist wine "in an unworthy manner, not discerning the body so as to become weak and perhaps die?"

Proper interpretation is that whoever claims to be part of Christ's body, whoever SAYS he is a genuinely-authentic, totally-surrendered-to-the-Lord Christian, must actually and in reality COMPLETELY belong to and be NONCONDITIONALLY devoted to Him as Savior and Master, realize that by ingesting communion elements one is proclaiming Christ's death until He comes or returns, and in one's heart reverence Christ as Lord [I Peter 3:15] in the sacred presence of Adonai's Spirit of Holiness....so that whatever is taken into the body does not come out from the heart defiling phenomena named in Mark 7:20-23.