MAN'S Bible?

The HOLY BIBLE records the commendable accomplishments AND embarrassing shenanigans of men - some of whom were inspired by the Spirit to write what turned out to be the entire contents of THE Book as we now have it from Genesis to Revelation:

+ Men like Noah who got drunk and lay naked
+ Men like Jacob [Israel] who lied to his partially-blind father Isaac when dishonestly claiming that he [Jacob] was instead Esau
+ Men like Moses who was an Egyptian killer and who blamed God for bringing Hebrews out of Egypt and hit a rock God commanded him to merely talk to
+ Men like Gideon who vandanized the village icon
+ Men like Samson who sported long hair and laid with a harlot one night
+ Men like Jephthah who murdered his daughter because of at best a rash and at worst a ridiculous oath which he mouthed off to God
+ Men like David who could not wear regular army clothes, hid in caves, pretended insanity, and was an adulterer under duress and consequential hit-man
+ Men like Solomon whose many wives somewhat turned his heart away from God
+ Men like Isaiah who walked around nude
+ Men like Ezekiel who baked cakes on cow's dung
+ Men like Hosea who had sex with a whore
...and the list goes on.

It is no wonder that the New Testament states that "the Law came through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. And as Christ Himself said: "All who came before Me were thieves and robbers, but the sheep did not heed them." Indeed!

So did imperfect Bible authors produce imperfect writings? When we state that the Bible - in the original languages - is inerrant and infallible, what is meant by that statement? We can, I suppose, assume that the PRECISE textual wording of the writings of such men HAS been perfectly preserved (in only one Kittel/Leningrad-Manuscript Masoretic Hebrew Text of the Old Testament and only one Scrivener/Trinitarian Greek Text of the New Testament) throughout the generations and centuries to us nowadays.

But WHAT does such text from the previously-mentioned IMPERFECT men state?

The man Lot is called both 'righteous' and 'unrighteous' in the New Testament, which man allowed his daughters to get him drunk and commit pregnancy-resultant incest with him.

Moses said that if a man has sex with his female slave which slave is betrothed to another man other than that slave's owner, no capital punishment for adultery is to be done, and a mere sin atonement sacrifice is required. Does THAT sound right?

Moses said that if a husband of a wife dies, the brother of that deceased husband must copulate for children with the dead man's wife, and the resultant kids (if any) will not be owned by the living man who got the deceased's wife pregnant. Does that sound like something God would - from between The Two Cherubim above the Mercy Seat of the Ark of the Covenant - order Moses to proclaim as Law? Case in point was Onan, who spilled his semen on the ground because "he knew that the kid would not be his own" (?) when coital connection with his dead brother's wife was supposed to be done. The text states that "God was displeased, and slew him." Displeased and slain for WHAT? For spilling semen on the ground and thus making a stinky mess? For not accomodating to being forced to make his dead brother's possibly-ugly wife pregnant? For WHAT?

The Pentateuch of Moses infers that a woman is impure and "sick" simply because she has her monthly menstrual period - something she has to offer a sin atonement for! So she is blamed for having her normal monthly menstrual period! Talk about an automatic monthly cause for a confessional! Typical people generally assume that that COMMON, NATURAL, and EXPECTED physiological phenomena of menstruation which she was AUTOMATICALLY BORN WITH simply goes with the territory.

Elsewhere in Scripture is the tale of Saul communicating with dead Samuel and talking dialog with him. Sounds a bit witchy, but the great magician Houdini is said to have made the promise that IF it was possible to communicate with people after he died, he would...but he never did. CAN anyone actually ever communicate with the dead? Really? Whether such a presumption is spooky and occultic, or not?

WHY did those particular stories of murders, seductions, rapes, indecent exposures, lies, etc. in The Bible of a FEW particular foreign men and women in an ancient and VERY small part of human history make it into The Bible? We know that that Book can only contain so much, but have there been, are there now, and will there be ANY MORE infamous stories of us Roman and Corinthian progenie of the churches of Galatia, Ephesus, and Thessalonica which will be included in The Holy Text sooner or later (as authorized by the Spirit Himself in myriad different ways)?

Some events recorded in Scripture....even one-time miraculous events....are credible (when such are pre-proclaimed and performed by the Creator who has created what does exist out of what has not existed before), and of course much of the history and laws of even the Old Testament is easily understandable plus LOGICALLY pertinent to us [obviously] - according to the to-whom-it-applies info of Bible-book Texts themselves, and so are quite applicable to all people of all time.

But the record of rapes, murders, lies, deception, indecencies, and more of the Biblical authors of especially the Old Testament seems to tie right in with some of the Bible-text rules and regulations they wrote down under the authority of the Divine Inspirer known as The Holy Spirit.

In contrast, the public record of the New-Testament Bible authors is relatively clean. True, Peter lied about not knowing Jesus when Peter actually did know Him, Saul-Paul had a part in hauling new Christians off to inquisition, and even Jesus allegedly called Himself a vegetable (True Vine), candle (Light of the World), wonder bread (Bread of Life), cowboy (Good Shepherd), etc.....or compared Himself with such. According to 'Saint' John, He purportedly told His friends that He was not going to a feast which He finally went to eventually.

But the literary pieces of the Old and New Testament prophets and disciples do make solid sense....if rightly understood and taken in an appropriate sense.

Without the Bible, we as humans could only logically deduce that that Creator who created everything around us is almost-incredibly precise, imaginative, and magnificently great beyond comprehension....and VERY benevolent and consistent. We also can readily discern that what the Creator has created is benignly immutable, in that it is firmly and irrevocably established - whether we want it to be or not - and thus the more we go against such and do not wisely and humbly accomodate to such, the more we hurt ourselves....even to the point of suicidally murdering ourselves in the attempt.

But the name of God, His identity, His stated intentions for humanity, some of His important interactions and stated desires for relationship with humanity....can only be found in The Bible.

More than that, the Bible (again: rightly understood and sensibly applied) has been and continues to be a vital and crucial (though not always "critical") Operating Manual that has kept society going from the time it was passed on verbally from Adam and Eve on, then written by the finger of God in the form of Ten Commandments and thereafter then to us by the fingers of imperfect men who were - nevertheless - on the right track.