When encountering bizarre and unusual records of strange occurrences in The HOLY BIBLE (something Scripture itself calls "signs"), many people nonthinkingly hear or read the accounts, then simply and quickly pass them off as a [purported] "miracle" - not giving it much more consideration or attention as to what exactly happened pertaining to that event.

Such an event was the phenomenon of "the star of Bethlehem."

In one of the New Testament gospels, historical record indicates that a "star" appeared which intrigued what can be assumed were at least three observant foreign astronomers (sometimes named "sages" or "wise men"). It is not unreasonable to deduct that that "star" they saw did not normally travel the night sky along with and as did the other "stars" but rather retained a permanent place in the night sky....perhaps from sunset to sunrise, during a period of several nights...until it apparantly abruptly disappeared. Because the wise guys (NOT astrologers, please!) did not have jet transport but instead used animal travel and/or ships to track the "star," the "star" had to be visible over a period of more than one night.

Thus, it seems that the "star" had at least two characteristics: (1) it did not typically move along with the other "stars" in the night sky, and (2) it was brighter than any other "star" in the night sky (even the planet Venus, of course). That being said, what actually transpired?

In the opening chapter of Genesis, it is stated that God created "the sun, moon, and stars" during Day 4 of Creation Week. Most modern astronomers have concluded that there are MANY "suns" and "moons" other that that particular one 93 million miles from Earth and other moons around other planets in Our Solar System. Notice that NO mention in Genesis chapter one is made of nebulas, galaxies, pulsars, comets, or even planets....but simply "stars." Did the Hebrew writer of Genesis (and our contemporary Hebrew-to-English Bible translators) not know the DIFFERENCE between "stars" contrasted with "planets" etc. along with DIFFERENT WORDS to DIFFERENTIATE them?

Getting back the the New Testament account of The Star of Bethlehem, I can think of only two realistic possibilities.

One is that the "star" was indeed a star like our Sun: a huge flaming gaseous ball of ongoing myriad-nuclear-fusion-explosions brilliance. But in order for this super-nova-like star to not incinerate the Earth at close distance, and for it to be in the same position in the night sky night after night, the light speeds and celestial path it would have had to move to stay in above-Bethlehem position are incredibly massive and bizarre, to say the least.

The other is that the "star" was a large-enough asteriod that (for some cause) was captured in far-enough-away Earth orbit for a while (exactly matching the rotational velocity of Earth turning on Earth's axis), then finally forced out of orbit for a similar or another cause when the three astronomers finally arrived at the manger in Bethlehem. If the "star" was an asteriod, it would indeed have appeared like a bright star to observers on Earth, much like our present-day satellites boosted aloft by rockets appear like bright stars in the night sky.

A most unusual event of celestial mechanics, reminiscent of Joshua's Long Day recorded in the Old Testament, which Sun-stood-still/Moon-stood-still incident which lasted less than two regular-interval days.

In the beginning, God made humanity both male and female. The natural procedure of reproduction requires and involves the physical joining of male and female seed.

Then what of Mary, who - as the New Testament record states - became pregnant with child specifically WITHOUT the act of sexually "knowing" (i.e. eroskenating) a human male?

What does such infer to some about the supposed superiority of the female-human gender? The irrelevance of male humans, and self-sufficiency of women alone? Or even that women and God alone are all that is needed for human propagation to avoid extinction? Is THAT was the Lord wanted to convey by that bizarre occurrence? I do not think so.

In WHAT WAY did "the Spirit of God will overcome and overshadow" Mary? WHAT EXACTLY happened within her reproductive system in the conception of Jesus? WHAT caused her ovarian egg to start dividing at conception? Whose X or Y chromosome genes were created and involved in the process? Is it possible that the Spirit impregnated her with the chromosomal essence of her husband-to-be Joseph...without Joseph having to "go into" (i.e. penetrate or fuck) Mary in the typical sensual and erotic process of impregnation to produce her FIRST-born before further siblings? And does that mean that God thinks sexual intercourse is dirty, that human nudity is obscene, that artificial insemination is holy and righteous? Such does not jive with much of the totality of the contents of especially the Old Testament, when perusing the many non-condemned accounts of sexually-oriented writings within The HOLY BIBLE, as for example in that canonical Divinely-inspired book called The Song of Solomon, to name at least one of many instances.

This webauthor lists the following three hotlinks relating to origins. Please keep in mind that he does not agree with some material within the websites and links they refer to, but does agree with other material. Be it known to the reader that all material - whatever it is - is suggested, analyzed, and evaluated according to [ and ONLY according to ] the totality of The HOLY BIBLE in its entirety.