Before I begin the main topic, I need to decry some subversive mainstream media.

I never have liked Associated Press because of their bigoted, biased, quasi-incorrect, politically-subversive reports plus anti-religious and incessant millions/billions-of-years pseudo-"scientific" [stated-as-presumed-"fact"] reiteration of evolution [mythology]. It seems that Wikipedia is taking the same half-lie dwelling-on-the-questionably-negative falsely-"educational" godless route.

Nor do I like the pro-homogay-pervert, pro-millions/billions-of-years evolution-mythology, pro-feminist-sexist, pro-Iranian-tyranny, anti-George-Bush subversive headlines of Yahoo News which I used to be able to respond to by internet reply-back, but which they have now completely suppressed (for all practical purposes) into their own daily listings of forced-brainwashing headlines and articles spewed out into cyberspace with no counter-reply feedback posted nor possible to post. [It is true that many responses in the postable past posted from vile and deviant commentators were almost-incredibly antisemitic, traitorous, and obscene...but Yahoo threw the baby out with the bathwater by eliminating the possibility of any worthwhile back-response].

Now, on to the main topic:

The ONLY reference in the entire Bible to death "parting" anyone from anyone else is found in Ruth 1:17 which states: "...where you die I will die, and there will I be buried. May the LORD do so to me and more also IF even death parts me from you."

From that, we have the questionable wedding-ceremony (not "marriage"-ceremony!) liturgy of which groom and bride customarily blatter: "...until DEATH us do PART."

Keep in mind that inferior-gender weaker-sex Ruth merely suggested that PERHAPS death could cause a "parting."

And WHAT would constitute a "parting?" Is that legitimately considered a "separation?"

When the LORD unites a man and woman in marriage (whether that is done with or without a wedding occurring), His command is: "What God has joined together, let no man put asunder" (Matthew 19:6, Mark 10:9). [Being that the Greek word in both verses is: anth(o)pos, the verses should instead read: "What God has joined together, let no HUMAN put asunder"].

It seems that there might be no dogs nor cats in heaven, being that neither Revelation nor any other book of Scripture mentioned such. White horses to ride on? Yes. Dogs or cats? No indication.

It also seems that there might not be any public nor private nudity nor sexual intercourse of those wearing long white robes having resurrected bodies [although Jesus was touchable and did eat fish after His resurrection].

According to Matthew 22:25, Mark 12:20, and Luke 20:29, Sadducees brought up a scenario to Jesus in which the same woman married seven brothers (one at a time), which brothers successively died with no children produced by any.....and asked the Lord whose wife she would be in the resurrection. Note that the Sadducees added the "no children" thing in each case, thus indicating perhaps a possible lack of sexual intercourse with any of the seven. Interesting it is that no children nor sex connection of any sort with deceased first husband is ever indicated for the widow Ruth (Ruth 1:1-5) , and no children nor sex connection of any sort with deceased first husband is ever indicated for the widow Abigail (First Samuel 25).

Why not?

And why the Genesis 38:8 pre-Mosaic tradition and then Mosaic Deuteronomy 25:5-10 law requiring a dead man's brother to take his dead brother's wife and "raise up" children "with her" for his dead brother's name? But not only does Saint Paul tell us that even though a widow is legally capable of "belonging" to another man upon her husband's death (Romans 7:3) it is "preferable" if she remains single as a widow (First Corinthians 7:39-40), he adds this later on: "But refuse to enroll younger-women widows, for when they grow wanton against Christ they desire to marry, and so they incur condemnation for having violated their first pledge" (First Timothy 5:11-12).

ARE those heterosexual couples who are married in Christ and thus in Paradise together "parted" or "separated?" Does death terminate the earthly-and-spiritual marriage and thus cause earthly and/or spiritual divorce? Romans 8:38-39 = "For I am sure that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor things present, nor things to come, nor powers, nor height, nor depth, nor anything else in all creation, will be able to separate us from the love of God in Christ Jesus our Lord." Is not part of that love of God agape/philios/eros love present in loving spouses for and towards each other?

In summary, death of one or both partners in a marriage does NOT dissolve nor invalidate the marriage of what God has joined together. In that sense, one or both of the spouses neither "parts" nor "separates" from each other upon the death of either or both. Instead, death of one or both merely causes a temporary absence away from each other.